Is It Impossible to Live Above Sin?
Dear Phil,
Could you help me with 1 John 1:8? Where I come from, this verse is used to prove it is impossible to live above sin.
Jimmy
Could you help me with 1 John 1:8? Where I come from, this verse is used to prove it is impossible to live above sin.
Jimmy
Dear Jimmy,
Here is that specific verse: “If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us.” If we take this verse by itself, it does sound like everyone sins and anyone who denies it is self–deceived. But, as the saying goes, “A text without a context is a pretext.” I think it may be helpful to start with a book–level view of what John says about sin. Consider the following statements from 1 John:
What does 1 John 1:8 mean in light of this book–level discussion? First, since the apostle is inspired by the Holy Spirit, we can assume that when properly understood there is no contradiction in what the Spirit says.
Second, the immediate context (1 John 1:5–10) suggests that John is addressing three errors made by non–believers, not believers. Claim 1: We can have fellowship with God while walking in darkness (1 John 1:6); Claim 2: We do not “have sin” (1 John 1:8); and Claim 3: We have never sinned (1 John 1:10).
No believer in Christ would ever say, “I have never sinned” (1 John 1:10). We have to admit we’re sinners in need of a savior to be saved in the first place! So, the third claim would only be made by someone who is rejecting Christ. As we have seen, John repeatedly and forthrightly denies the possibility that anyone can be a believer who practices lawlessness (1 John 3:4–6), so the first claim (“We can have fellowship with God while walking in darkness”) must be made by someone who has not accepted Christ and his command to “go and sin no more” (John 5:14). In other words, verse six is not addressing true believers, but false professors. If the first and third claims are made by unbelievers, then it seems reasonable to assume that the second claim is also made by unbelievers.
Why would unbelievers claim to “have no sin?” Here is where broader context, like authorial usage, is very helpful. John is the only NT writer to use the phrase “have no sin” or “have sin.” He uses this phrase five times (John 9:41; 15:22, 24; 19:11; 1 John 1:8). Each time he uses the phrase “have sin” or “have no sin,” he is referring to having culpability (responsibility, guilt) for sins committed.
In John 9:41, Jesus said to the Pharisees, “If you were blind, you would have no sin; but since you say, ‘We see,’ your sin remains.” Here Jesus is applying the principle that God holds people accountable for what they know, not for what they don’t know. Since the Pharisees claimed to “see,” they were accountable for the sins they had committed. But they refused to acknowledge that they had any guilt. The Pharisees would have said, “We have no sin.” If you look at John 15:22–24, you’ll see the same thing. Those who don’t know the truth, don’t “have sin,” but those who do know the truth, “have no excuse for their sin.”
In conclusion, 1 John 1:8 does not teach that believers continue to practice sin, or that believers remain sinful even as they are being cleansed by Jesus’ blood. It teaches that those who deny they are guilty for the sins they have committed, like the Pharisees in Jesus’ day, are self–deceived.
Blessings,
Phil
Here is that specific verse: “If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us.” If we take this verse by itself, it does sound like everyone sins and anyone who denies it is self–deceived. But, as the saying goes, “A text without a context is a pretext.” I think it may be helpful to start with a book–level view of what John says about sin. Consider the following statements from 1 John:
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What does 1 John 1:8 mean in light of this book–level discussion? First, since the apostle is inspired by the Holy Spirit, we can assume that when properly understood there is no contradiction in what the Spirit says.
Second, the immediate context (1 John 1:5–10) suggests that John is addressing three errors made by non–believers, not believers. Claim 1: We can have fellowship with God while walking in darkness (1 John 1:6); Claim 2: We do not “have sin” (1 John 1:8); and Claim 3: We have never sinned (1 John 1:10).
No believer in Christ would ever say, “I have never sinned” (1 John 1:10). We have to admit we’re sinners in need of a savior to be saved in the first place! So, the third claim would only be made by someone who is rejecting Christ. As we have seen, John repeatedly and forthrightly denies the possibility that anyone can be a believer who practices lawlessness (1 John 3:4–6), so the first claim (“We can have fellowship with God while walking in darkness”) must be made by someone who has not accepted Christ and his command to “go and sin no more” (John 5:14). In other words, verse six is not addressing true believers, but false professors. If the first and third claims are made by unbelievers, then it seems reasonable to assume that the second claim is also made by unbelievers.
Why would unbelievers claim to “have no sin?” Here is where broader context, like authorial usage, is very helpful. John is the only NT writer to use the phrase “have no sin” or “have sin.” He uses this phrase five times (John 9:41; 15:22, 24; 19:11; 1 John 1:8). Each time he uses the phrase “have sin” or “have no sin,” he is referring to having culpability (responsibility, guilt) for sins committed.
In John 9:41, Jesus said to the Pharisees, “If you were blind, you would have no sin; but since you say, ‘We see,’ your sin remains.” Here Jesus is applying the principle that God holds people accountable for what they know, not for what they don’t know. Since the Pharisees claimed to “see,” they were accountable for the sins they had committed. But they refused to acknowledge that they had any guilt. The Pharisees would have said, “We have no sin.” If you look at John 15:22–24, you’ll see the same thing. Those who don’t know the truth, don’t “have sin,” but those who do know the truth, “have no excuse for their sin.”
In conclusion, 1 John 1:8 does not teach that believers continue to practice sin, or that believers remain sinful even as they are being cleansed by Jesus’ blood. It teaches that those who deny they are guilty for the sins they have committed, like the Pharisees in Jesus’ day, are self–deceived.
Blessings,
Phil